tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-119994678985722094.post4555502043746672141..comments2024-01-21T07:04:09.072-08:00Comments on Aesthetics Today: Do Aesthetic Properties Supervene on Non-Aesthetic Properties?Tom Leddyhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/13934376970865685864noreply@blogger.comBlogger3125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-119994678985722094.post-27922025571445010482014-01-02T15:00:49.325-08:002014-01-02T15:00:49.325-08:00Hey, Tom! I think you did get at what I was asking...Hey, Tom! I think you did get at what I was asking. Generally, I was just wondering about how the context affects a certain property. Based on what you said it seems that when the context is changed a property itself doesn't change, but instead is replaced by a similar but more nuanced property(This opinion seems much less problematic than the other that you described!). So, based on this idea, I'm wondering how the context works to form these context-based properties. For instance, is the context-based property of a painting the same whether it is in my home or in a museum?<br /><br />Concerning my "instance" question, I assume that hue is the same. I was just wondering if the property of that hue being beautiful was the same whether I saw it in a painting or on my blanket. Also, I think that I stretched my quotation marks too far when describing the property. The property I was describing should have just been the hue itself (assuming that the hue is exactly the same, of course).Michael " Aesthete in Training" Johnsonnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-119994678985722094.post-28263881945258019992013-12-30T12:09:28.119-08:002013-12-30T12:09:28.119-08:00Thanks Michael. Your question is pretty complex. ...Thanks Michael. Your question is pretty complex. The sentence of mine you quote is definitely controversial. It is derived from my belief that parts of organic wholes are interconnected in such a way that if one part changes all of the others do as well. So does the context changing change a property? When the changing context creates a new organic whole, yes, the property changes. The question remains whether it is the character of the property that changes or is the property simply exchanged for another property? I prefer the first view, i.e. that properties themselves have properties. But one could go another way and say that properties are highly nuanced and inadequately described by mere property terms, and so, when context is changed, instead of properties of properties changing you have simple change (i.e. replacement) of properties, although the new one is only subtly different from the one replaced. Maybe this is not decidable. When you speak of the "status" of the property this seems to refer to certain relations it has with other properties and entities: but then a changing status of the property would be a changing property of the property, and this would indicate that you agree with me.<br /><br />Your "instance" question leads me to wonder first whether the second color is really the same hue. Is it the same hue if it has different properties? Or, again, do we just have a different hue completely (although subtly different, to be sure.) <br /><br />Also, is "being a specific hue I admire" a property? Many would say that your admiring it is something subjective and that properties are objective, and so it does not make sense to speak of this as a property. However if you question (as I do) the objective/subjective division itself then this property of "being a specific hue admired by Michael" is a relational property and hence is a property of the hue. <br /><br />As for the substance of your last question it seems you are puzzling over whether a hue could be aesthetic in one place and not in another. Everyday aestheticians do not believe that "aesthetic" is a term only applicable to art. So we would have no problem with saying that that the hue can be aesthetic both in the painting and in the blanket, and also no problem with the idea that it is aesthetic in different ways in these two contexts. <br /><br />Maybe I haven't gotten to the core of your question, however.Tom Leddyhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/13934376970865685864noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-119994678985722094.post-60406311765568285372013-12-28T23:22:41.225-08:002013-12-28T23:22:41.225-08:00Interesting post! I like your analysis of Gracyk&#...Interesting post! I like your analysis of Gracyk's argument, but I'm wondering about a claim you made. You say, "if an experience is aesthetic, all properties within the experience are aesthetic." Does the context of the aesthetic experience itself change the status of the property? For instance, if I see a certain hue in a painting, admire the color, and later see the same hue on my blanket and admire it again, then how is the property of "being the specific hue I admire" somehow aesthetic when I see a painting yet not when I look at my blanket?Michael " Aesthete in Training" Johansonnoreply@blogger.com